Is taxation somehow not theft because “the government owns the land”? Statists have made this assertion, but for me it only brings up more questions.
How did the government get the land? Does it really own it, or did it simply decide it owns it?
Can I form a government today and suddenly own all the land from this moment forward, no matter who has owned it, and no matter how many generations it has been in their family? And then “tax” them based on this presumed ownership?
If not, why not? What’s the difference?
Is it the belief that a collective can do things that would be wrong for an individual to do? This is nothing but a superstitious belief.
Theft is still theft. It doesn’t matter where it occurs– either at stealing the land or stealing the money from those on the land.
That statist argument fails–as do they all.